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Next change: CMC and CSC ·

Change ahead : Revised CMC test plan from AACN’s 2025 study of practice · AACN

CMC practice questions, on the November 2026 plan

Practice test · revised plan · 60 questions

60 questions sorted by the revised plan’s sections, none of them repeated from the section pages of this site. The explanations cover every option, so a correct guess still shows the reasoning.

How this set follows the revised plan

Every item carries the section tag of the November 19, 2026 plan, and the chips filter one section at a time. Procedures and drugs hold the largest group, as Section III does on the exam (44%). The exam allows 2 hours for 90 questions, about 80 seconds each (our arithmetic); keep that pace if you want a timed run.

60 questions across the five study sections

Monitoring and Diagnostics · 14%

A patient with severe aortic stenosis who takes furosemide faints while climbing stairs and recovers within a minute. Telemetry during the event showed sinus tachycardia at 118. The MOST LIKELY cause of the syncope is

Answer and why, all 4 options

Exertional syncope with sinus tachycardia in severe AS comes from a fixed outflow obstruction. The heart cannot raise output to match the vasodilation of exercise, so cerebral perfusion falls.

Complete heart block would show on telemetry as AV dissociation, not sinus tachycardia.

A diuretic may add to low preload, but the exertional timing and severe stenosis point to the fixed obstruction.

Vasovagal syncope involves a trigger, a prodrome and bradycardia. It does not fit exertion with tachycardia.

Item 1047362

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A man admitted with NSTEMI is screened for metabolic syndrome. Which set of findings meets the diagnostic criteria?

Answer and why, all 4 options

BMI and LDL are not metabolic syndrome criteria, and a BP of 128/78 is below the threshold. This set meets none.

A waist of 98 cm is under the male cutoff and LDL is not a criterion. Only the BP of 134/86 counts, which is one of three.

Metabolic syndrome needs 3 of 5 criteria: waist over 102 cm in men, triglycerides of 150 or more, HDL below 40 in men, BP of 130/85 or more, and fasting glucose of 100 or more. A waist of 106, triglycerides of 180 and HDL of 35 give three.

Glucose of 96, HDL of 52 and triglycerides of 140 are all on the normal side of the cutoffs.

Item 1047386

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient with cardiorenal syndrome has received continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration for 48 hours. Which electrolyte abnormality should the nurse anticipate?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Hyperphosphatemia is the problem of untreated kidney failure, which CRRT removes. After 48 hours of therapy, phosphate runs low.

High potassium is one of the problems CRRT corrects. Without replacement, potassium tends to fall, not rise.

Continuous hemodiafiltration steadily removes small solutes, including phosphate, so hypophosphatemia is common after a day or two unless it is replaced. It can weaken the respiratory muscles and delay weaning.

Serum sodium tracks the sodium in the replacement fluid. CRRT does not drive it upward.

Item 1047422

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with an anterior STEMI develops a new rSR′ pattern in V1 with wide S waves in I and V6, plus left axis deviation. HR is 76 and BP 118/72. The nurse should

Answer and why, all 4 options

Atropine acts on the AV node. It does not help infranodal block and is not given to a patient with a normal heart rate.

Amiodarone treats tachyarrhythmias and can worsen conduction disease.

A new bifascicular block during an anterior MI carries a real risk of complete heart block.

A new RBBB with left axis deviation, or bifascicular block, during an anterior STEMI shows septal ischemia that can progress suddenly to complete heart block. Transcutaneous pacing pads are placed in advance.

Item 1048145

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient is scheduled for rotational atherectomy of a heavily calcified right coronary artery. Which preparation is MOST important?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Amiodarone loading does not prevent atherectomy-related bradycardia and can worsen it.

Lidocaine prophylaxis for ventricular arrhythmias is not standard and does not address the bradycardia risk.

Rotational atherectomy of the RCA often causes bradycardia and heart block from debris and the right-sided conduction supply. Temporary pacing on standby is the key preparation.

Routine IABP is not required for atherectomy. It is reserved for selected high-risk anatomy or poor LV function.

Item 1048181

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient with refractory stable angina is referred for enhanced external counterpulsation (EECP). Which finding should the nurse report before therapy begins?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Controlled BP is acceptable. Uncontrolled hypertension above about 180/110 would be the problem.

EECP squeezes the legs to push blood back toward the heart, which can dislodge a recent DVT. Active or recent DVT is a contraindication.

Prior bypass surgery is common in patients referred for EECP and is not a contraindication.

Compensated HF with an EF of 40 percent is usually acceptable. Decompensated HF is the concern.

Item 1048184

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with Eisenmenger syndrome from an unrepaired ventricular septal defect is admitted with pneumonia. Baseline SpO₂ is 84%. When starting peripheral IV therapy, the nurse should

Answer and why, all 4 options

Closing the defect once pulmonary vascular disease is fixed causes acute RV failure. It is not done in Eisenmenger syndrome.

Extra IV fluid does not raise SpO₂ in a fixed shunt and can strain the right ventricle.

Chronic cyanosis from the shunt does not correct with oxygen, and a baseline SpO₂ in the 80s is expected. Chasing 95 percent adds risk without benefit.

With right-to-left shunting through the VSD, any air bubble in a vein can cross into the systemic circulation and cause a stroke. In-line air filters on every IV line prevent paradoxical air embolism.

Item 1048752

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient without valve disease has PAOP 22 mm Hg, SVR 1100 dynes·sec/cm⁵, SV 40 mL and HR 90. The PRIMARY problem is

Answer and why, all 4 options

An SVR of 1100 is within the normal range of about 800 to 1200, so afterload is not the main problem.

A high PAOP with a low stroke volume, while SVR and heart rate are near normal, means the ventricle is filled but not ejecting. That is a contractility problem, as in systolic heart failure.

Hypovolemia would show a low PAOP. A wedge of 22 mm Hg means the left heart is full.

High preload alone would come with a normal or high stroke volume. A stroke volume of only 40 mL despite high filling pressure points to pump failure.

Item 1048773

Therapeutic Interventions: pharmacology

A patient with HFrEF and a recent HF hospitalization is to start vericiguat. Before the first dose, the nurse should confirm that the patient is NOT taking

Answer and why, all 4 options

Vericiguat and riociguat both stimulate soluble guanylate cyclase. Taking them together risks severe hypotension and is contraindicated.

Vericiguat was studied on top of standard therapy that included sacubitril/valsartan.

Vericiguat can be given with an SGLT2 inhibitor such as dapagliflozin.

An MRA such as spironolactone is part of standard HFrEF therapy and is compatible with vericiguat.

Item 1049205

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with untreated severe OSA has telemetry showing 4-second sinus pauses and 2:1 AV block only during sleep. The patient is asymptomatic and the daytime ECG is normal. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Atropine at bedtime is not a treatment for OSA-related bradyarrhythmias and has anticholinergic harms.

An EP study is not needed when there is a clear reversible cause and the daytime ECG is normal.

Pauses and AV block only during sleep in untreated severe OSA come from vagal surges during apneas. CPAP treats the cause and usually abolishes them.

A pacemaker is not needed for asymptomatic nocturnal block that resolves with CPAP.

Item 1049228

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient with uncontrolled hypertension on four antihypertensive agents undergoes catheter-based renal denervation via femoral access. Discharge teaching should include that

Answer and why, all 4 options

The effect develops over weeks to months, not within 24 hours.

Home BP monitoring is needed to judge the response and adjust medications.

Renal denervation lowers BP modestly and gradually, as an adjunct. Current BP medications are continued, with home BP monitoring guiding any later change.

Stopping all medications after a week overestimates a modest effect and risks rebound hypertension.

Item 1049406

Monitoring and Diagnostics · 14%

A patient with warm and wet acute decompensated HF is started on nesiritide. Which change 2 hours later reflects the intended effect of the drug?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Nesiritide is a natriuretic peptide that dilates veins and arteries, lowering preload. Its intended effect in warm-and-wet HF is a fall in PAOP and improved dyspnea.

Nesiritide is not a negative chronotrope, and a large fall in HR is not its target.

A rise in SVR is the opposite of nesiritide's arterial vasodilation.

A rising cardiac index with unchanged PAOP describes an inotrope, not a vasodilator.

Item 1049568

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with sick sinus syndrome and intact AV conduction has a VVI pacemaker set at 60/min. When paced, the patient reports dizziness and neck pulsations, and BP falls by 20 mm Hg. Cannon a waves are seen. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

A faster VVI rate paces more often and worsens the syndrome.

Capture is not the problem. The symptoms come from lost AV synchrony.

Ventricular pacing with intact AV conduction causes atrial contraction against closed valves, which produces cannon a waves, neck pulsations and a BP fall. This is pacemaker syndrome, and restoring AV synchrony with dual-chamber pacing fixes it.

A beta-blocker slows the sinus rate and increases ventricular pacing.

Item 1049579

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

An 80-kg patient with acute HF, AKI, and a CVP of 18 mm Hg is starting CVVH for volume overload. MAP is 70 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate an initial net fluid removal rate of

Answer and why, all 4 options

500 to 600 mL/h is an intermittent dialysis pace that a patient with acute HF and AKI cannot tolerate.

300 to 400 mL/h outpaces refilling and invites hypotension and kidney hypoperfusion.

20 to 40 mL/h barely dents a CVP of 18 and delays decongestion.

For an 80-kg patient with a MAP of 70, a starting net ultrafiltration rate of about 1 to 2 mL/kg/h, or 100 to 150 mL/h, removes fluid while the vascular space refills. It is adjusted to hemodynamic tolerance.

Item 1049886

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient scheduled for an electrophysiology study and ablation of AV nodal reentrant tachycardia takes metoprolol and diltiazem. The nurse should anticipate instructions to

Answer and why, all 4 options

AV nodal blockers can suppress inducibility during an EP study. They are usually held for about five half-lives so the arrhythmia can be induced and mapped.

Amiodarone has a long half-life and would suppress the arrhythmia for weeks.

Taking both drugs the morning of the study can make the tachycardia impossible to induce.

Diltiazem also slows the AV node, so continuing it defeats the purpose.

Item 1050053

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A 70-year-old patient with new AF has TSH 0.08 mIU/L with normal free T4 and free T3. The nurse should recognize this pattern as

Answer and why, all 4 options

Overt hyperthyroidism needs a high free T4 or T3, and these are normal.

Subclinical hypothyroidism is a high TSH with a normal free T4. This choice reverses the direction.

Nonthyroidal illness usually shows a low T3 with variable TSH in a sick inpatient. It does not fit an isolated low TSH in a patient with AF.

A low TSH with normal free T4 and T3 is subclinical hyperthyroidism. A TSH below 0.1 in an older adult with AF is usually treated.

Item 1050251

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient started atorvastatin 80 mg after an MI. Four weeks later the patient reports diffuse muscle aches, fatigue, cold intolerance, and constipation. CK is elevated and TSH is markedly elevated. Which factor MOST likely contributes to the muscle symptoms?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Rehab exercise does not explain the cold intolerance, constipation and high TSH.

Ezetimibe rarely causes myopathy and is not mentioned as part of the regimen.

Hypothyroidism raises the risk of statin myopathy and itself causes muscle aches and a high CK. Cold intolerance, constipation and a high TSH point to it.

Low-dose aspirin does not increase the risk of statin myopathy.

Item 1050269

Monitoring and Diagnostics · 14%

A patient with HFrEF has an ScvO2 that falls from 70% to 55% during bathing and repositioning and recovers within 3 minutes of rest. The nurse should

Answer and why, all 4 options

Extra oxygen all shift treats a resting state that is already adequate. The fall comes from demand, not low arterial oxygen.

Starting an inotrope for a short, activity-related dip that resolves with rest goes too far.

Transfusion raises oxygen content, but nothing suggests anemia, and ScvO₂ recovers on its own at rest.

A brief fall in ScvO₂ during activity that recovers with rest shows higher oxygen consumption that a limited cardiac output cannot match. Spacing activities with rest periods prevents repeated oxygen debt.

Item 1050965

Monitoring and Diagnostics · 14%

During dobutamine stress echocardiography, a patient's anterior wall contracts normally at rest and at low dose, then becomes hypokinetic at peak dose. This finding MOST LIKELY indicates

Answer and why, all 4 options

Transmural scar is abnormal at rest and does not improve with dobutamine.

Hibernating myocardium starts out hypokinetic at rest, improves at low dose and then worsens at peak dose, which is the biphasic response.

A wall that is normal at rest and low dose, then becomes hypokinetic at peak stress, has adequate flow at rest but a flow-limiting stenosis under demand. This is inducible ischemia.

A normal response is increasing contraction at higher doses, not new hypokinesis.

Item 1051216

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

During an electrophysiology study, an isoproterenol infusion is started to help induce SVT. The patient, who has known CAD, develops chest pain and 2 mm ST depression with sinus tachycardia at 150/min. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Isoproterenol raises heart rate and oxygen demand. Chest pain with ST depression in a patient with CAD is ischemia, so the infusion is stopped.

Increasing it to induce SVT worsens the ischemia. Reaching the study goal does not outweigh demand ischemia.

Nitroglycerin while continuing the cause treats the symptom and keeps the trigger running.

This is sinus tachycardia driven by the drug, not SVT. Adenosine would only briefly slow it.

Item 1051538

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

During cryoballoon ablation of the right pulmonary veins, the operator paces the right phrenic nerve while the nurse palpates the upper abdomen. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Cryoablation near the right pulmonary veins can injure the right phrenic nerve. A weakening diaphragm contraction during phrenic pacing means injury is starting, and freezing must stop at once.

Transient sinus bradycardia can occur with vagal stimulation during ablation and is usually brief.

Inferior ST elevation can come from air embolism, which is a concern, but it is not what the phrenic pacing check is designed to find.

A falling esophageal temperature signals esophageal cooling, which matters with left-sided ablation near the esophagus, not phrenic injury.

Item 1051549

Therapeutic Interventions: pharmacology

A patient with ADHF has had 6 L of diuresis and is started on milrinone. Two hours later, BP has fallen from 98/60 to 76/44; CVP is 3 mm Hg and PAOP 8 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

With a CVP of 3 and PAOP of 8, no congestion remains. More diuretic worsens the volume depletion.

Adding another inotrope does not fix an empty ventricle. Dobutamine also vasodilates.

Raising the milrinone dose adds vasodilation and deepens the hypotension.

Low CVP and PAOP after a large diuresis mean the hypotension comes from too little preload plus milrinone's vasodilation. Pausing the milrinone and giving a small fluid bolus restores filling.

Item 1051555

Monitoring and Diagnostics · 14%

A patient on an Impella CP after high-risk PCI has a placement signal showing a ventricular waveform and a flat, nonpulsatile motor current. The MOST LIKELY cause is

Answer and why, all 4 options

If the pump slipped back into the aorta, the placement signal would show an aortic waveform, not a ventricular one.

Thrombosis raises motor current and causes hemolysis. It does not change the placement signal to ventricular.

A ventricular placement signal with a flat motor current means both the inlet and outlet are in the LV. The pump is too deep and must be pulled back.

Correct position shows an aortic placement signal with a pulsatile motor current. A ventricular signal is never the correct position.

Item 1051565

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient resuscitated from VF arrest is comatose but hemodynamically stable, and the post-ROSC ECG shows no ST elevation. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Immediate cath lab activation is reserved for STEMI, cardiogenic shock, recurrent arrhythmia or ongoing ischemia after ROSC.

A balloon pump supports a failing circulation. This patient is hemodynamically stable and needs no circulatory support.

For a comatose but stable survivor without ST elevation, trials such as COACT and TOMAHAWK found no benefit from immediate angiography. Angiography is deferred while care focuses on temperature, oxygen and blood pressure.

Fibrinolysis has no role without a STEMI or a confirmed PE and adds bleeding risk after CPR.

Item 1051639

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

After radiofrequency ablation of the slow AV nodal pathway for AVNRT, a patient's PR interval is 0.28 seconds and the rhythm shows 2:1 AV conduction. The nurse should

Answer and why, all 4 options

A long PR and 2:1 block after slow-pathway ablation suggest injury to normal AV conduction, a known complication. It is reported, and pacing is prepared.

Heart block is not an expected result of AVNRT ablation. It is a complication.

Adenosine blocks AV conduction further and can cause complete block.

Metoprolol slows AV conduction and could worsen the block.

Item 1051661

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient on IV heparin for NSTEMI has an aPTT of 128 seconds (therapeutic range 60–85 seconds). There is no bleeding. Following a standard weight-based nomogram, the nurse should

Answer and why, all 4 options

Continuing the same rate leaves the patient overanticoagulated and at bleeding risk.

A bolus with a higher rate is the response to a low aPTT. This reverses the direction.

Protamine is for serious bleeding or a full reversal need. A high aPTT without bleeding is managed by dose adjustment.

An aPTT far above range without bleeding is handled by the nomogram: hold the infusion for about an hour, then restart at a lower rate and recheck in about 6 hours.

Item 1102852

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

Six hours after transcatheter edge-to-edge mitral repair, a patient develops sudden dyspnea, crackles, SpO2 86%, and a new loud holosystolic apical murmur. BP 98/60. The MOST likely cause is

Answer and why, all 4 options

An access-site hematoma causes local swelling or bleeding, not a new murmur and pulmonary edema.

Sudden pulmonary edema with a new loud holosystolic apical murmur hours after edge-to-edge repair suggests clip detachment or leaflet tear with acute severe mitral regurgitation.

A small residual atrial septal defect from the transseptal puncture is common and rarely causes acute pulmonary edema.

Tamponade causes hypotension and muffled heart sounds with JVD, not a new loud regurgitant murmur.

Item 1102853

Monitoring and Diagnostics · 14%

A patient arrives for a regadenoson nuclear stress test and says he drank two cups of coffee 3 hours ago. The nurse should

Answer and why, all 4 options

A higher dose is not an accepted way to overcome caffeine and adds side effects.

Caffeine blocks adenosine receptors and blunts the coronary vasodilation that regadenoson produces, which can make the scan falsely negative. Caffeine is avoided for 12 to 24 hours before, so the test is rescheduled.

Holding a beta-blocker does not reverse caffeine's blockade of adenosine receptors.

Caffeine does affect regadenoson: it competes at the same adenosine receptors. Proceeding risks a falsely reassuring scan.

Item 1103221

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient in AF has an occasional single wide QRS complex with RBBB morphology. Each one ends a short R–R interval that follows a long R–R interval, and none is followed by a compensatory pause. The MOST likely explanation is

Answer and why, all 4 options

Paced beats have a pacing spike and a fixed rate. Nothing suggests a pacemaker.

A wide beat with RBBB pattern ending a short cycle after a long one is Ashman phenomenon. The right bundle is still refractory after the long cycle and conducts aberrantly. The absent compensatory pause also favors a supraventricular beat.

PVCs usually have no consistent long-short trigger and often show other morphologies. They are not tied to cycle-length changes.

Bigeminy means every other beat is ectopic. This pattern is occasional and tied to cycle length.

Item 1103232

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

After benzocaine spray for a transesophageal echo, a patient's SpO₂ falls from 98% to 85% and does not improve with 100% oxygen. An ABG shows PaO₂ 95 mm Hg, and the blood looks chocolate-brown. The MOST likely cause is

Answer and why, all 4 options

Carbon monoxide gives a falsely normal or high SpO₂ and cherry-red blood, not a fall to 85 percent with brown blood.

Motion artifact does not change blood color or persist with a stable waveform.

PE lowers the PaO₂. Here the arterial oxygen is normal.

Benzocaine can oxidize hemoglobin to methemoglobin. SpO₂ drifts toward 85 percent and does not respond to oxygen while the PaO₂ is normal, and the blood looks chocolate-brown. Co-oximetry confirms it, and methylene blue treats it.

Item 1103435

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient with metastatic lung cancer has confusion, constipation and polyuria. The ECG shows sinus rhythm at 76/min with a very short ST segment and a QTc of 330 ms. Which laboratory result is MOST likely?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Hypokalemia causes U waves and an apparent long QT, not a short ST segment.

A shortened ST segment and QTc in a patient with cancer who is confused, constipated and polyuric point to hypercalcemia. Malignancy is a common cause.

Hypocalcemia lengthens the ST segment and QT. This option reverses the calcium-QT relationship.

Low magnesium lengthens the QT and predisposes to torsades.

Item 1103655

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

Three days after an MI, a patient has a confirmed ventricular septal rupture with a left-to-right shunt. BP is 92/60 mm Hg, CI 1.9 L/min/m², PAOP 20 mm Hg, and urine output is falling. While awaiting definitive closure, the nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Fluid adds to an already high left-sided pressure and pulmonary flow.

In a post-MI VSD with low output, IABP lowers afterload so more blood flows forward and less is shunted left to right. It bridges the patient to closure.

A beta-blocker reduces contractility in a low-output state and can cause collapse.

Phenylephrine raises afterload and increases the left-to-right shunt.

Item 1103766

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

The day after a temporary transvenous pacer is placed via the right IJ, the paced QRS changes from LBBB to RBBB morphology, capture is intermittent, and the patient reports pleuritic chest pain. The MOST likely cause is

Answer and why, all 4 options

A change from LBBB to RBBB paced morphology means the lead tip is now pacing the LV, so it has passed through the septum or RV wall. Loss of capture and pleuritic pain support perforation.

Lead maturation slightly raises thresholds over weeks. It does not change the paced QRS morphology or cause pain.

Hyperkalemia can raise capture thresholds but does not flip the paced bundle-branch pattern or cause pleuritic pain.

A temporary pulse generator's battery does not change paced morphology, and it is replaced at the bedside.

Item 1103800

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

Two weeks after drug-eluting stent placement for NSTEMI, a patient taking aspirin and ticagrelor reports brief episodes of mild breathlessness at rest. SpO₂ is 98%, lungs are clear, HR is 72 and BNP is normal. The nurse should advise the patient to

Answer and why, all 4 options

A normal exam, oxygen saturation and BNP do not support an emergency PE work-up.

Aspirin is part of DAPT after a stent. Stopping it alone is not the patient's decision.

Stopping ticagrelor two weeks after a stent risks stent thrombosis for a benign side effect.

Mild, brief dyspnea is a known ticagrelor side effect, with normal oxygen saturation, lungs and BNP. The patient keeps taking it and reports it at follow-up, because stopping risks stent thrombosis.

Item 1103930

Therapeutic Interventions: pharmacology

A patient with obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy started mavacamten 8 weeks ago. The follow-up echo shows LVEF 45% (previously 68%), and the patient reports new exertional dyspnea. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Continuing unchanged ignores the label's LVEF threshold for interrupting therapy.

Mavacamten is a myosin inhibitor that can reduce systolic function. An LVEF below 50 percent with new HF symptoms calls for holding it and rechecking echo, as its safety program requires.

Increasing the dose would further reduce contractility in a patient whose LVEF has already fallen.

Verapamil also depresses contractility, and adding it does not address the systolic dysfunction.

Item 1103944

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A post-arrest patient on temperature control at 33 °C has needed an insulin infusion at 6 units/h for glucose of 190–220 mg/dL. Controlled rewarming is starting. Regarding glucose, the nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Glucose shifts most during rewarming, so checks are needed then.

Raising insulin during rewarming adds to the risk of hypoglycemia.

Insulin sensitivity rises and glucose falls as the body rewarms, so hypoglycemia is a risk. Glucose is checked more often and the insulin dose is reduced.

Keeping the same plan ignores the expected change in insulin sensitivity.

Item 1104421

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A comatose patient was managed at 36 °C for 36 hours after cardiac arrest, and then the cooling device was removed. Twelve hours later the temperature is 38.3 °C, with no new source of infection. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Cultures are reasonable, but sending them without treating the fever leaves the brain exposed to hyperthermia.

Re-cooling to 33 °C is not indicated. The goal is to prevent fever, not to restart hypothermia.

Fever control continues to matter after the device phase ends. Ignoring a temperature of 38.3 °C in a comatose patient risks further brain injury.

Fever after the temperature-control phase is linked to worse neurologic outcome. In a comatose patient, active fever prevention is resumed, typically keeping temperature at or below 37.5 °C.

Item 1104432

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

During a first hemodialysis session for uremia (BUN 142 mg/dL), a patient with heart failure develops headache, nausea and restlessness, then becomes confused. BP is 136/80 mm Hg and glucose 112 mg/dL. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

The BP is normal, so this is not dialysis hypotension, and a saline bolus does not address cerebral edema.

Headache, nausea, restlessness and confusion during a first dialysis run with a very high BUN suggest dialysis disequilibrium. Rapid urea removal leaves the brain relatively hyperosmolar and water shifts in. The run is slowed or stopped and the provider notified.

The glucose is 112 mg/dL, which rules out hypoglycemia as the cause of the confusion.

A faster blood pump removes urea even faster and worsens the osmotic shift into the brain.

Item 1104591

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

At a clinic check, a patient's pacemaker magnet rate has fallen from 100 to 85/min, which matches the manufacturer's elective replacement indicator. The patient feels well, and capture and sensing are normal. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Reprogramming the lower rate does not restore a depleting battery and can drain it faster.

Waiting for symptoms risks loss of pacing, especially in a pacemaker-dependent patient.

Leads are working, with normal capture and sensing. The battery, not the lead, needs replacing.

A magnet rate that falls to the manufacturer's elective replacement value means the battery is near the end of its life. A planned generator change is scheduled before pacing becomes unreliable.

Item 1104603

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

Six hours after pericardiocentesis with a pigtail drain left in place, drain output has abruptly stopped. BP is now 88/60 mm Hg, HR 116, and pulsus paradoxus 16 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Stopped output with signs of tamponade means a blocked drain, not a resolved effusion. Removing it takes away the route for drainage.

Furosemide lowers preload in a patient whose heart is compressed, which can cause collapse.

Fluid can support preload briefly, but it does not relieve tamponade.

Drain output that stops abruptly, with hypotension, tachycardia and pulsus paradoxus, suggests the drain is blocked and fluid is reaccumulating. An urgent echo confirms tamponade and guides drainage.

Item 1104779

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with a permanent pacemaker is scheduled for a cardiac MRI to evaluate cardiomyopathy. Before the scan, the nurse should FIRST

Answer and why, all 4 options

Turning off pacing can be dangerous in a dependent patient. Mode changes are programmed per protocol.

MRI with a cardiac device is possible when the generator and leads are MR-conditional. The first step is to confirm the device's status and then program it as the manufacturer requires.

A magnet does not reliably make a device MRI-safe, and the magnetic field itself can trigger unpredictable modes.

Many devices are MR-conditional, so canceling the scan for good denies a useful test.

Item 1104838

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient admitted for chest pain has a platelet count of 38,000/mm³; it was 180,000/mm³ last month. There is no bleeding or bruising and no heparin exposure, and the laboratory reports platelet clumps on the smear. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Platelet clumping on the smear with no bleeding suggests EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia. A repeat count in a citrate tube confirms the true count.

Holding aspirin for a falsely low count can increase ischemic risk in a patient with chest pain.

There has been no heparin exposure, so HIT is not a reasonable concern.

Transfusing for a lab artifact exposes the patient to risk with no benefit.

Item 1104963

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient with alcohol use disorder has dyspnea, edema, warm extremities, HR 118, and bounding pulses. Echo shows LVEF 60%, cardiac output 9.2 L/min, and lactate 4.1 mmol/L. The nurse should anticipate administering

Answer and why, all 4 options

B12 deficiency also causes macrocytic anemia and neuropathy. It does not explain high-output failure.

High-output heart failure with warm extremities and lactic acidosis in a malnourished drinker suggests wet beriberi. Thiamine deficiency causes vasodilation and impaired aerobic metabolism, and IV thiamine reverses it quickly.

Folate deficiency causes macrocytic anemia, not a high-output state with lactic acidosis.

Cardiac output is already 9.2 L/min. An inotrope adds nothing to a high-output state caused by vasodilation.

Item 1104978

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

Three weeks after starting pembrolizumab for melanoma, a patient has fatigue, muscle aches and palpitations. hs-troponin T is 640 ng/L and rising, CK is elevated, and the ECG shows new right bundle branch block with a PR interval of 280 ms. Coronary CT angiography is normal and LVEF is 50%. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

NSAIDs and colchicine treat pericarditis, which this choice confuses with immune-mediated myocarditis.

Continuing the checkpoint inhibitor allows a potentially fatal myocarditis to progress. GDMT alone does not treat the inflammation.

Conduction disease may need temporary pacing if it progresses, but a permanent device is not the first step in an inflammatory process that may reverse.

Rising troponin with new conduction disease weeks after starting a checkpoint inhibitor, with normal coronaries, means immune checkpoint inhibitor myocarditis. It is treated urgently with high-dose IV corticosteroids and withdrawal of the checkpoint inhibitor.

Item 1105081

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

On day 4 of admission, a patient with metastatic lung cancer develops severe pain and massive swelling of the entire left leg from foot to groin. The leg is tense and deep purple-blue, the foot is cool, and pedal pulses are faint by Doppler. These findings are MOST consistent with

Answer and why, all 4 options

Arterial embolism makes the limb pale, cold and pulseless, but without massive swelling.

Cellulitis causes red, warm skin, not deep cyanosis with reduced arterial pulses.

Massive swelling of the entire leg, intense pain, purple-blue color and fading pulses mean extensive venous thrombosis is now blocking arterial inflow. This is phlegmasia cerulea dolens, a limb-threatening emergency often linked to cancer.

Uncomplicated DVT causes swelling and pain but does not compromise arterial flow or turn the leg blue.

Item 1105090

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A 52-year-old with symptomatic paroxysmal AF and normal LV function asks whether catheter ablation is possible before trying antiarrhythmic drugs. The nurse should explain that

Answer and why, all 4 options

For symptomatic paroxysmal AF in a younger patient with normal LV function, catheter ablation can be a first-line rhythm-control option under the 2023 ACC/AHA AF guideline.

Ablation works best in paroxysmal AF, not permanent AF.

Drug failure is not required before ablation in selected patients.

Anticoagulation is guided by stroke risk score after ablation, not by rhythm success.

Item 1105498

Therapeutic Interventions: pharmacology

After an MI, a patient receives inclisiran (an siRNA that lowers LDL) because LDL remains above goal on a maximal statin and ezetimibe. Doses were given in January and April. The nurse should teach that the next dose is due in

Answer and why, all 4 options

Waiting until January stretches the maintenance interval to 9 months.

May would be only one month after the April dose, which is far too soon.

Inclisiran is given at day 0 and 3 months, then every 6 months. After doses in January and April, the next dose is due in October.

July would be the 3-month interval repeated, which applies only to the loading phase.

Item 1105503

Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient discharged 5 days after an anterior MI with an EF of 30% receives a wearable cardioverter-defibrillator. Which instruction should the nurse include?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Arrhythmic death occurs at night too, and the device must be worn during sleep.

The device decides on its own when a shock is needed. No button delivers a shock on request.

Feeling better does not reduce early post-MI arrhythmic risk. The device is worn until LVEF is reassessed.

A wearable defibrillator protects only while it is worn, and sudden death risk is highest early after an MI. It is worn day and night, removed only briefly for bathing.

Item 1105519

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with COPD and HFrEF passes a spontaneous breathing trial after 4 days of ventilation, with a PaCO₂ of 52 mm Hg during the trial. Immediately after extubation, the nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Patients with COPD and hypercapnia during a breathing trial are at high risk of failing extubation. Planned NIV applied right after extubation reduces reintubation.

An SpO₂ goal of 96 percent or more in COPD risks hyperoxic hypercapnia. The usual target is about 88 to 92 percent.

High-flow oxygen through a nonrebreather in hypercapnic COPD can worsen CO₂ retention and does not support ventilation.

Waiting for distress before starting NIV misses the preventive benefit and delays reintubation if it fails.

Item 1106032

Therapeutic Interventions: pharmacology

A patient taking simvastatin 40 mg daily after an MI has fasting triglycerides of 560 mg/dL. Which newly ordered drug should the nurse question?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Ezetimibe is commonly combined with statins without this interaction.

Fenofibrate has much less effect on statin levels. It is the fibrate used with a statin when one is needed.

Prescription omega-3 products can be safely added to a statin.

Gemfibrozil blocks statin clearance and raises the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. It is contraindicated with simvastatin.

Item 1106074

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient on an IABP at 1:1 develops complete heart block and is now 100% ventricularly paced by a temporary pacemaker. The console triggers erratically from the ECG, counting the pacing spikes. The nurse should anticipate changing to

Answer and why, all 4 options

Internal trigger is asynchronous and meant for cardiac arrest or no cardiac output. It is not used with a paced rhythm.

When pacing spikes are counted as R waves, the balloon times erratically. In a 100 percent paced rhythm, the pacer trigger mode uses the spike to time inflation reliably.

Lowering augmentation volume does not address timing errors from a bad trigger.

Reducing the ratio to 1:3 cuts support without fixing the trigger problem.

Item 1106078

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with a type B aortic dissection on IV labetalol has pain rising from 2 to 8, systolic BP falling from 130 to 90 mm Hg and urine output falling from 40 to 15 mL/hr over 4 hours. The nurse should anticipate

Answer and why, all 4 options

Adding a vasodilator drops BP more and does not treat a complicated dissection.

Rising pain, falling BP and falling urine output despite medical therapy mark a complicated type B dissection with malperfusion or impending rupture. Urgent endovascular repair is indicated.

Lowering BP further worsens malperfusion when pressure is already falling.

Continuing the same therapy for 4 more hours delays repair while organs are already underperfused.

Item 2032609

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

A patient with a known DVT suddenly develops dyspnea, SpO2 85% on room air, HR 124 and BP 88/56 mm Hg. The nurse should FIRST

Answer and why, all 4 options

A CT trip for an unstable patient comes after initial stabilization and may be unsafe.

A large fluid bolus can overdistend a failing right ventricle in PE. Only cautious volume is used.

Sudden dyspnea, hypoxemia and hypotension in a patient with DVT suggest a massive PE. Oxygen comes first while the team prepares for reperfusion.

Raising the legs does nothing for hypoxemia and may push more clot.

Item 2032613

Non-Cardiovascular Conditions · 21%

Four patients are receiving aspirin and ticagrelor after PCI. Which patient is at GREATEST risk for a major bleeding event?

Answer and why, all 4 options

A prior bleeding peptic ulcer is a major bleeding risk factor during dual antiplatelet therapy and favors a proton pump inhibitor.

Smoking and a prior MI raise ischemic, not bleeding, risk.

Diabetes raises ischemic risk more than bleeding risk.

Age 66 with controlled BP is not high bleeding risk. Age 75 or older is the usual threshold.

Item 2032641

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient wearing a wearable cardioverter-defibrillator calls because the device alarm and siren started while jogging. The patient feels well. The nurse should instruct the patient to FIRST

Answer and why, all 4 options

A conscious wearer who hears the alarm presses and holds the response buttons. That tells the device the patient is awake and prevents an unneeded shock.

Turning the monitor off removes protection and does not fix the cause of the alarm.

Removing the vest while it is alarming takes away protection if a real arrhythmia is under way.

Lying down to wait for a shock accepts a painful, unnecessary shock when the patient is conscious and well.

Item 2032690

Therapeutic Interventions: pharmacology

A patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease has received a procainamide infusion for recurrent VT for 24 hours. The QRS has widened and the QTc is 520 ms. To assess for drug accumulation, the nurse should review

Answer and why, all 4 options

NAPA, procainamide's active class III metabolite, is cleared almost entirely by the kidney. In stage 4 CKD it builds up and lengthens the QT, so a NAPA level, read with the parent-drug level, shows accumulation.

Thyroid tests matter for amiodarone, not procainamide. This choice confuses two antiarrhythmics.

Procainamide toxicity in CKD comes from renal accumulation of NAPA. Liver tests do not measure it.

Potassium and magnesium are worth checking in any long-QT patient, but they cannot show drug accumulation.

Item 2032736

Monitoring and Diagnostics · 14%

A patient has 2 hours of substernal chest pressure and ST depression in V4 to V6. High-sensitivity troponin I is 4 ng/L on arrival and 30 ng/L 2 hours later (99th percentile 15 ng/L). These findings are MOST consistent with

Answer and why, all 4 options

Unstable angina has ischemic symptoms without troponin rising above the 99th percentile. Here troponin rose to 30.

Ischemic symptoms with a hs-troponin that rises from below to above the 99th percentile, and no ST elevation, meet the definition of NSTEMI.

Chronic myocardial injury shows a stable, persistently high troponin, not a rise from 4 to 30.

Pericarditis causes positional pain and diffuse ST elevation, not localized ST depression with a troponin rise.

Item 2033023

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with a CRT-D and permanent AF has persistent dyspnea despite maximally tolerated metoprolol succinate and digoxin. Biventricular pacing is 84%. The nurse should anticipate preparing the patient for

Answer and why, all 4 options

In permanent AF, rapid conduction competes with pacing, so biventricular pacing falls. AV node ablation ensures near-100 percent pacing when rate control fails.

Diltiazem depresses contractility in HFrEF and is avoided.

The LV lead works when it paces. The problem is how often it paces, not where it sits.

Generator replacement does not change pacing percentage in AF.

Item 2033121

Monitoring and Diagnostics · 14%

Serial echocardiograms are obtained for a patient with pulmonary hypertension. Which change indicates worsening RV systolic function?

Answer and why, all 4 options

An LVEF of 55 percent is still normal and reflects the left ventricle, not the right.

TAPSE measures how far the tricuspid annulus moves toward the apex in systole. A fall from 20 mm to 13 mm, below the normal of about 17, shows declining RV systolic function.

A smaller IVC that collapses more suggests lower right atrial pressure. If anything, that is the opposite of a failing RV.

RV wall thickening is hypertrophy, an adaptation to pressure load. It describes wall structure, not how well the RV contracts.

Item 2033129

Therapeutic Interventions: procedures and devices

A patient with HFrEF and an ICD receives five shocks in 10 minutes. The patient is conscious, anxious and reports chest discomfort. The nurse should FIRST

Answer and why, all 4 options

A magnet stops shocks but would also disable therapy for a real VT storm. It is used only after the rhythm shows the shocks are inappropriate.

An anxiolytic may help after the cause is known, but it does not tell whether the shocks were appropriate.

Several shocks in a conscious patient may be appropriate therapy for an electrical storm or inappropriate shocks for AF, noise or lead failure. The first step is to look at the rhythm, which decides what comes next.

Potassium and magnesium matter for storm, but checking the rhythm comes first.

Item 2033258

Your score: – fills in as you answer; nothing is saved.Doubt a key? Note the item number — how corrections work →

What a missed question points to

  • Misses on devices or procedures: reread the timing and position rules on procedures and devices.
  • Misses on drugs: most trace back to a hold rule or a contraindication, collected on pharmacology.
  • Misses on diagnoses: check whether you read the ECG and the vital signs before the history, then reread Section I.
  • Misses on kidney, lung or blood problems: Section II places them in the cardiac patient.
  • Misses on numbers: Section IV covers reading pressures and gases.

The section pages carry separate questions, so nothing here repeats them.

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About this practice set

Were any of these items on a real cardiac medicine exam?

No. They are rewritten for this site from our own question banks and sorted by the published test plan; the board does not release live exam items.

Does my score here predict a pass?

Not reliably. Current forms are passed with 50 of 75 scored questions right, and 60 self-scored items are too few to forecast that. Treat the wrong answers as a study list.