SCRN practice questions, balanced like the real exam
Practice set · stroke nursing · 4 options per item
A practice set sized to the real exam's balance: more hyperacute and acute care, less rehab and prevention. Every option, right or wrong, has its own explanation.
How the 60 items are divided
Scaled down from the official counts per 150 scored questions:
Hyperacute care (42 items on the exam): 17 here
Acute care (42 items): 17
Pathophysiology (28 items): 11
Post-acute care (19 items): 8
Prevention (19 items): 7
None of these 60 repeats a question from the five section pages, so a section quiz and this set can be taken in either order. Items mirror the exam's format (4 options, one answer).
60 questions across the five sections
Acute Care · 42 items
On day 2 after a large left MCA infarct, the patient's GCS falls from 14 to 11 and the patient vomits for the first time. The nurse's FIRST action is to
Answer and why, all 4 options
A fall of 3 GCS points with new vomiting on day 2 of a large infarct suggests swelling or hemorrhagic transformation; it needs urgent imaging and a decision on treatment.
Extra fluid does not treat a neurologic decline and, if hypotonic or excessive, can worsen brain swelling.
Treating the vomiting as a stomach problem masks a sign of rising intracranial pressure and loses an hour.
A deteriorating neuro exam must be reported at once; delayed reporting is a failure to rescue.
Item 419522
Acute Care · 42 items
A patient with ischemic stroke who received no reperfusion therapy is neurologically stable on day 4, with a persistent BP of 164/94 mm Hg. Home lisinopril is being held. The nurse anticipates
Answer and why, all 4 options
The 220/120 threshold is for the first 48 to 72 hours in patients without reperfusion therapy, not a long-term limit.
Rapid IV lowering to a low target can drop perfusion to vulnerable brain and is not needed in a stable patient.
Permissive hypertension applies only to the first 48 to 72 hours; months of untreated BP raise recurrence risk.
Once the patient is neurologically stable and past the first 48 to 72 hours, restarting home BP drugs for readings of 140/90 or higher is reasonable and begins secondary prevention.
Item 419628
Acute Care · 42 items
A patient with acute spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage has a BP of 198/104 mm Hg on arrival. The nurse titrates the ordered nicardipine infusion toward a systolic BP of
Answer and why, all 4 options
185/110 is the pre-lytic ceiling for ischemic stroke; it is too loose a target for an active intracerebral bleed.
In spontaneous ICH with SBP 150 to 220, lowering to about 140 and holding it between 130 and 150 is reasonable to limit hematoma growth; dropping below 130 has been linked to harm.
Permissive hypertension up to 220/120 applies to ischemic stroke without reperfusion, not to hemorrhage, where high pressure drives hematoma expansion.
Very aggressive lowering risks kidney injury and cerebral hypoperfusion without extra reduction in bleeding.
Item 419841
Acute Care · 42 items
A small-bore nasogastric feeding tube has been placed for a patient with severe dysphagia after stroke. Before the first feeding, placement should be confirmed by
Answer and why, all 4 options
An air bolus can sound gastric even when the tube sits in the lung or esophagus, so auscultation is not reliable.
The water test is outdated and unsafe: the absence of bubbles does not exclude airway placement and the patient may aspirate.
A small-bore tube can slip into the airway without a cough in a patient with impaired reflexes, so an X-ray is the standard confirmation before anything is infused.
Being able to speak does not exclude a small tube in the airway, and many patients after stroke have aphasia or dysarthria.
Item 420044
Acute Care · 42 items
On day 2 after an ischemic stroke, a patient sitting up for the first time becomes dizzy and the right arm weakness worsens. The nurse should FIRST
Answer and why, all 4 options
Oral fluids are unsafe before a swallow screen, and staying upright keeps the brain underperfused.
A new or worse deficit is never routine fatigue; it needs assessment and reporting now.
Worsening weakness on sitting up suggests orthostatic hypoperfusion of penumbral tissue; lowering the head restores flow while the nurse measures BP and the deficit.
Pushing on while the deficit worsens risks extending the infarct and a fall.
Item 420049
Acute Care · 42 items
When providing oral care for an NPO patient with impaired swallowing after stroke, the nurse should
Answer and why, all 4 options
Lying flat lets secretions pool at the back of the throat and raises aspiration risk.
A patient with impaired swallowing can aspirate a mouthful of liquid; only small amounts with suction are used.
Foam swabs moisten the mouth but do not remove plaque; mechanical brushing is what lowers the bacterial load.
Brushing removes the plaque that seeds aspiration pneumonia, suction clears the fluid the patient cannot swallow, and the raised head keeps secretions out of the airway.
Item 420252
Acute Care · 42 items
A patient who failed the bedside swallow screen is thirsty and asks for water while awaiting the speech-language evaluation. The nurse should
Answer and why, all 4 options
Choosing a texture is part of the SLP evaluation; thickened liquids can still be aspirated.
Until the SLP clears oral intake the patient stays NPO; moistening the mouth relieves thirst without delivering a swallow of liquid, and it does not replace brushing.
Ice chips melt into thin water, the texture most easily aspirated, so they are oral intake and are held after a failed screen.
A chin tuck is a strategy the SLP may prescribe after assessment; the nurse cannot assume it makes water safe.
Item 1876622
Acute Care · 42 items
The family of a patient with a devastating intracerebral hemorrhage asks for their faith leader to perform a prayer ritual at the bedside. The nurse should
Answer and why, all 4 options
Supporting the family's spiritual and cultural practices is part of end-of-life and palliative care; the nurse accommodates the ritual and works care around it.
Visitor limits applied rigidly at the end of life put routine ahead of the family's needs, and stimulation is not a concern here.
Spiritual support matters most during uncertainty; waiting may mean the family misses the chance.
A prayer ritual raises no ethical conflict, so an ethics referral only adds delay.
Item 1981388
Acute Care · 42 items
Physical therapy evaluation for a stable patient 2 days after a mild ischemic stroke is delayed for 48 hours. Which nursing action BEST prevents deconditioning?
Answer and why, all 4 options
Passive motion keeps joints mobile but does not maintain strength or endurance in a patient able to move.
Two more days of bed rest add weakness, VTE and pneumonia risk without benefit.
Turning protects skin but is not mobility; waiting for PT wastes the early recovery window.
A stable patient after a mild stroke can begin protocol-based mobility under nursing care; it prevents deconditioning while the PT evaluation is pending.
Item 1981399
Acute Care · 42 items
A stroke survivor on clopidogrel needs a proton pump inhibitor for GI protection. Because of a CYP2C19 interaction that reduces clopidogrel's effect, the PPI to AVOID is
Answer and why, all 4 options
Pantoprazole has little effect on CYP2C19 and is a usual choice when a PPI is needed with clopidogrel.
Omeprazole (and esomeprazole) inhibits CYP2C19, the enzyme that turns clopidogrel into its active form, and the FDA label advises against combining them.
Dexlansoprazole has not shown a meaningful reduction in clopidogrel activation and is not the PPI singled out for avoidance.
Rabeprazole is mostly cleared by non-enzymatic pathways and interacts with clopidogrel far less than omeprazole.
Item 1981456
Acute Care · 42 items
A stroke unit meets STK-8 in 72 percent of 150 eligible discharges. If a new process raises compliance to 90 percent with the same volume, how many additional patients will receive compliant education?
Answer and why, all 4 options
This is the number already compliant at 72%, not the number added.
This takes the 18-point change in percentage as a count of patients; percentage points must be applied to the 150 discharges.
This is the total compliant at 90%; the gain is the difference between the two totals.
At 72% of 150, 108 patients get compliant education; at 90% the number is 135, so the gain is 135 minus 108, or 27 patients.
Item 1981476
Acute Care · 42 items
At a community health fair, a 55-year-old with no symptoms or history of stroke asks for a carotid ultrasound 'to be safe.' The SCRN explains that routine carotid screening of adults without symptoms
Answer and why, all 4 options
Hypertension is managed by controlling BP; it is not an indication for carotid ultrasound in a person without symptoms.
No guideline recommends routine yearly carotid ultrasound by age; age alone does not justify screening.
In adults without symptoms the low prevalence of significant stenosis means screening leads to more false positives and harmful procedures than strokes prevented; USPSTF recommends against it.
Treating risk factors prevents far more strokes than imaging; an ultrasound cannot stand in for BP and lipid control.
Item 1981485
Acute Care · 42 items
In a 42-year-old with a cryptogenic ischemic stroke, the test that BEST detects a patent foramen ovale is
Answer and why, all 4 options
Agitated saline injected IV shows bubbles crossing from the right to the left atrium through a patent foramen ovale, especially when the patient strains.
A prolonged monitor looks for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, another cryptogenic stroke workup step, but it cannot detect a PFO.
CTA shows the cerebral and cervical arteries, not the interatrial septum.
Carotid ultrasound looks for stenosis in the neck arteries; it cannot show a shunt inside the heart.
Item 1981491
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
A patient on warfarin with a large intracerebral hemorrhage has a GCS of 7, snoring respirations, and emesis in the mouth. BP is 212/108 mm Hg. The PRIORITY action is to
Answer and why, all 4 options
A GCS of 7 with snoring respirations and vomit in the mouth means the airway is not protected; clearing and securing it comes before BP control or reversal.
BP control is urgent in ICH, but a patient aspirating vomit with an obstructed airway will deteriorate faster from hypoxia.
Warfarin reversal is time-critical but follows airway management; it can be prepared in parallel once the airway is safe.
Transporting an unprotected airway to the scanner risks aspiration and arrest, and repeat imaging does not change the immediate priority.
Item 419592
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
On day 1 after a Hunt and Hess IV aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage, a patient with no cardiac history develops sudden dyspnea, pink frothy sputum, bilateral crackles and an SpO2 of 86%. The MOST likely cause is
Answer and why, all 4 options
Asthma causes wheezing and prolonged expiration, not pink frothy sputum, and the patient has no history of it.
A massive catecholamine surge after a high-grade SAH raises pulmonary capillary pressure and permeability, causing sudden frothy pulmonary edema in someone with a healthy heart.
PE causes sudden dyspnea and hypoxia, but it does not produce frothy sputum with bilateral crackles.
Aspiration pneumonia develops over a day or more with fever and focal infiltrates, not abrupt pink frothy sputum.
Item 420235
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
On day 6 after aneurysm coiling, a patient becomes newly confused with mild right arm drift. Sodium is normal, and CT shows no new hemorrhage or hydrocephalus. The nurse suspects
Answer and why, all 4 options
Hydrocephalus would show enlarged ventricles on the CT, which is described as clear.
The sodium is normal, which excludes hyponatremia as the cause of the confusion.
New confusion and a focal deficit on days 3 to 14 after SAH, with normal sodium and no new bleed or hydrocephalus, is delayed cerebral ischemia, often from vasospasm.
The aneurysm has been coiled, and a rebleed would show new blood on CT with a sudden decline.
Item 420396
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
A patient with an acute left MCA occlusion has a forced horizontal gaze deviation. The nurse expects the eyes to deviate to
Answer and why, all 4 options
Gaze away from a hemispheric lesion is seen with seizures or some thalamic and pontine lesions, not a destructive MCA stroke.
Upward deviation is not a sign of hemispheric stroke; eyelid retraction suggests a dorsal midbrain lesion.
Downward and inward deviation points to thalamic or dorsal midbrain injury, not an MCA infarct.
The left frontal eye field drives gaze to the right; when it is knocked out, the intact right hemisphere pushes the eyes to the left, so they look toward the lesion.
Item 420407
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
A patient taking apixaban arrives 40 minutes after sudden left hemiparesis and vomiting. GCS is 13 and BP is 210/115 mm Hg. Blood samples have been sent. The nurse's PRIORITY is to
Answer and why, all 4 options
Sudden deficit with vomiting and very high BP on an anticoagulant suggests hemorrhage, but only imaging can tell bleed from infarct; CT comes first and must not wait for labs.
Reversal before imaging risks giving a prothrombotic drug to a patient with an ischemic stroke; the diagnosis comes first.
Lab results can follow the scan; waiting for them delays both diagnosis and any treatment.
A catheter is not urgent and adds infection risk; it should not delay imaging.
Item 1876714
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
Which patient is the BEST candidate for decompressive hemicraniectomy?
Answer and why, all 4 options
A small deep infarct in a stable patient causes no dangerous swelling, so there is no indication for decompression.
Patients 60 or younger whose malignant MCA infarct swells despite medical care gain the most from decompression done within 48 hours of onset.
By day 5 the swelling has usually peaked and the evidence for benefit comes from surgery within 48 hours.
Over 60 the functional benefit of surgery is smaller and the decision rests heavily on the patient's own wishes, so this patient is not the best candidate.
Item 1876741
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
A patient taking aspirin and clopidogrel has a 15-mL deep intracerebral hemorrhage and will not undergo surgery. Platelet count is 210,000/mm3. Regarding platelet transfusion, the nurse knows it
Answer and why, all 4 options
No proven reversal exists for antiplatelet drugs in ICH, and transfused platelets did more harm than good.
A count of 210,000 is normal; the problem is platelet function, and the count threshold here is invented.
In the PATCH trial, platelet transfusion for antiplatelet-associated ICH in patients not having surgery increased death or dependence, so it is not recommended.
Plasma replaces clotting factors and does nothing for antiplatelet drugs; it adds volume and transfusion risk.
Item 1876766
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
A stroke team wants to shorten the interval from CT completion to lytic bolus. Which Target: Stroke strategy is MOST effective?
Answer and why, all 4 options
Moving the patient before the bolus adds transport time; the lytic is given in the CT suite or ED.
Coagulation results are not required unless a coagulopathy is suspected; waiting for them delays treatment.
Treatment can follow the treating physician's read of the images; waiting for the formal report adds minutes.
Target: Stroke encourages premixing the lytic for likely candidates so the bolus can start the moment hemorrhage is excluded; an unused dose is an accepted cost.
Item 1981197
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
The family of a 55-year-old patient with a malignant MCA infarct asks what decompressive hemicraniectomy will achieve. The BEST explanation is that it
Answer and why, all 4 options
Surgery is done to relieve life-threatening swelling and herniation, not to prevent seizures.
Hemicraniectomy removes bone, not brain, and it does nothing to prevent a recurrent stroke.
Decompression lets the swollen brain expand outward and roughly halves mortality, but it does not restore infarcted tissue, so many survivors live with moderate to severe disability.
Dead brain does not recover after decompression; setting this expectation misleads the family's decision.
Item 1981218
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
The family of a patient with aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage asks why the aneurysm must be secured so quickly. The nurse explains that
Answer and why, all 4 options
Seizures in SAH occur mostly at onset; this timing is invented and is not the reason for early treatment.
An unsecured aneurysm is most likely to rebleed in the first day, often within hours, and a rebleed is frequently fatal, so it is secured as early as possible.
Acute hydrocephalus can appear within hours of the bleed; it is not limited to late presentation.
Arterial narrowing after SAH starts around day 3 and peaks between days 3 and 14, not within hours of the rupture.
Item 1981270
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
On non-contrast CT, early ischemic changes are seen in the lentiform nucleus, internal capsule and insula, with the cortical regions spared. The ASPECTS is
Answer and why, all 4 options
ASPECTS starts at 10 and subtracts one point per affected region; the lentiform nucleus, internal capsule and insula are three regions, so 10 minus 3 is 7.
This subtracts a fourth region, such as the caudate, which is not described as involved.
Ten means no early ischemic change, but three regions are affected.
Three is the number of affected regions, not the score; the score counts down from 10.
Item 1981301
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
An 82-year-old has a supratentorial intracerebral hemorrhage of 35 mL without intraventricular extension. GCS is 11. The ICH score is
Answer and why, all 4 options
This total usually leaves out the age point; the ICH score adds 1 for age 80 or older.
This counts only one item; GCS, volume and age each score here.
This adds a point for intraventricular extension or an infratentorial site, and neither is present.
ICH score: GCS 5 to 12 gives 1, volume of 30 mL or more gives 1, age 80 or older gives 1, and no intraventricular or infratentorial blood adds 0, for a total of 3.
Item 1981516
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
A patient with a left M1 occlusion is 8 hours from last known well. Which CT perfusion profile meets DEFUSE-3 criteria for extended-window thrombectomy?
Answer and why, all 4 options
The core is small, but the mismatch ratio of about 1.4 is below 1.8, so there is too little salvageable tissue to qualify.
A 75 mL core is over the 70 mL limit, and the ratio of about 1.5 is too small, even though the penumbra looks large.
DEFUSE-3 required a core under 70 mL, a mismatch ratio of at least 1.8 and a mismatch volume of at least 15 mL; 105 over 22 is a ratio near 4.8 with 83 mL of penumbra.
The ratio of about 1.8 looks acceptable, but a 90 mL core exceeds the trial's 70 mL limit.
Item 1981558
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
Noncontrast CT 2 hours after symptom onset shows a well-defined bright (hyperdense) area in the right basal ganglia. The nurse should anticipate
Answer and why, all 4 options
Early ischemia looks dark or blurred on CT; bright tissue means blood (a bright vessel sign is a clot inside an artery, not brain tissue).
BP control is a gate for ischemic stroke; it cannot make a lytic safe in a patient who is bleeding.
The first CT already shows the hemorrhage, which needs its own treatment now, not a repeat scan.
A well-defined hyperdense area in the basal ganglia at 2 hours is acute blood, a typical hypertensive hemorrhage, and any intracranial hemorrhage excludes thrombolysis.
Item 1981684
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
The nurse has 1 minute with a stroke patient's spouse before the patient leaves for CT. Which information is MOST important to obtain?
Answer and why, all 4 options
Last known well sets eligibility for thrombolysis and thrombectomy, and the spouse may be the only person who can give it; everything else can be found later.
The first scan is a noncontrast CT, and a contrast allergy can be managed; it does not decide treatment eligibility.
Anticoagulant use matters, but a complete list takes far more than a minute and can come from the pharmacy record; the time cannot be recovered later.
A recent stroke within 3 months is a lytic consideration, but the time of onset of this event comes first.
Item 1981728
Post-acute Care · 19 items
Which instrument quantifies motor impairment of the arm and leg after stroke and is widely used in rehabilitation trials?
Answer and why, all 4 options
The Norton scale predicts pressure injury risk and has nothing to do with motor impairment.
The Fugl-Meyer Assessment scores motor recovery of the upper and lower limb item by item and is the most common motor impairment outcome in rehabilitation trials.
The modified Rankin Scale grades overall disability on a 0 to 6 scale; it does not rate the arm and leg item by item.
The GCS rates level of consciousness in acute brain injury; it does not measure limb motor recovery.
Item 420459
Post-acute Care · 19 items
The family of a stroke survivor asks which change should prompt them to report possible depression. The SCRN teaches them to report
Answer and why, all 4 options
Short, sudden crying that does not match mood fits pseudobulbar affect, a different condition with different treatment.
Loss of interest or pleasure is a core symptom of depression, which is common after stroke and slows recovery, so families should report it.
Being tired after a long therapy day is expected; it does not by itself suggest depression.
Speech that slows with fatigue reflects the stroke deficit, not mood.
Item 1876774
Post-acute Care · 19 items
Several weeks after a stroke, a patient's affected hand becomes swollen, shiny, and painful, with pain in the same shoulder. The SCRN suspects
Answer and why, all 4 options
Subluxation causes shoulder pain but does not explain the swollen, shiny, painful hand.
Arm DVT causes swelling and aching, but not shiny skin with shoulder pain; upper limb DVT is uncommon without a central line.
Central pain is a burning pain in the area of sensory loss without swelling or skin changes, usually after a thalamic stroke.
A swollen, shiny, painful hand with pain in the same shoulder weeks after a stroke is the shoulder-hand form of complex regional pain syndrome.
Item 1876779
Post-acute Care · 19 items
A caregiver will feed a stroke survivor who has right facial weakness and mild dysphagia. The SCRN teaches the caregiver to
Answer and why, all 4 options
Small bites on the stronger, unaffected side give better control and sensation and keep food from pocketing in the weak cheek.
Food on the weak side pockets where the patient cannot feel or clear it, raising aspiration risk; exercise belongs in therapy, not meals.
Large bites are harder to control and raise the risk of choking and aspiration.
Tilting the head back opens the airway to the food; a chin-down position is the usual protective posture.
Item 1981162
Post-acute Care · 19 items
A stroke survivor is fitted with a new ankle-foot orthosis. The SCRN teaches the patient to
Answer and why, all 4 options
Socks protect the skin from friction and moisture; bare skin in a brace invites breakdown.
The AFO is mainly worn while walking to hold the foot up; night use does not help gait.
A new orthosis can rub, and sensation may be reduced after a stroke; redness that lasts after removal means the brace needs adjusting before a wound forms.
Fatigue is when foot drop and tripping are most likely, so this is when the brace matters most.
Item 1981166
Post-acute Care · 19 items
At the end of the day, a stroke survivor's flaccid right hand is swollen. The SCRN should
Answer and why, all 4 options
Dependent edema in a flaccid hand comes from lack of muscle pumping; elevation and active-assisted or passive movement help fluid return.
Ice on skin with reduced sensation risks cold injury and does not treat dependent edema.
A tight splint on a swollen hand restricts circulation and can cause skin damage.
A dependent hand fills with more fluid; it should be supported at or above heart level.
Item 1981225
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
In a patient with an acute M1 occlusion of the middle cerebral artery, the penumbra is kept alive mainly by retrograde flow through
Answer and why, all 4 options
Lenticulostriate arteries branch off the occluded M1 and are end arteries, so they are cut off themselves and supply no collateral flow.
External-to-internal carotid collaterals run mainly through the ophthalmic artery and matter in ICA occlusion, not in an M1 clot beyond the circle of Willis.
Veins drain blood away from the brain; they cannot deliver arterial blood to ischemic tissue.
Pial anastomoses over the cortex let ACA and PCA blood flow backward into the MCA territory, and their strength largely sets how long the penumbra survives.
Item 419603
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
A 7-year-old has recurrent TIAs triggered by crying. Angiography shows narrowing of both distal internal carotid arteries with a fine 'puff of smoke' network of collaterals. This pattern indicates
Answer and why, all 4 options
RCVS causes thunderclap headaches with segmental narrowing that resolves within weeks; it is mostly seen in adults.
Fibromuscular dysplasia gives a string-of-beads pattern in mid-cervical or renal arteries, mostly in women, not a collateral network.
Progressive narrowing of both distal internal carotids with a fine collateral network that looks like a puff of smoke on angiography is moyamoya; crying-induced hyperventilation lowers CO2 and triggers TIAs.
Vasculitis causes beading and narrowing of many medium and small vessels, often with headache and cognitive change, not symmetric distal ICA occlusion.
Item 420011
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
After a left parietal stroke, a patient understands the request and has normal strength but cannot pantomime brushing the teeth on command. This is
Answer and why, all 4 options
Abulia is lack of initiative, often after frontal damage; the patient tries to act but cannot produce the movement.
The patient understands and has the strength but cannot turn the idea into the learned movement; dominant parietal lesions classically cause ideomotor apraxia.
Visual agnosia is failure to recognize objects by sight; the patient here fails to act on a spoken command.
Receptive aphasia means the request is not understood, but this patient understands it.
Item 1876919
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
A 64-year-old with metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma has acute infarcts in several vascular territories, a markedly elevated D-dimer, normal telemetry, and no carotid stenosis. The MOST likely stroke mechanism is
Answer and why, all 4 options
Infarcts in several territories with a very high D-dimer in active adenocarcinoma point to cancer-related hypercoagulability (Trousseau syndrome), often with nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis.
The carotids show no stenosis, and infarcts in several territories cannot come from one carotid.
Small-vessel disease causes single small deep infarcts, not multiple territorial ones.
RCVS presents with thunderclap headaches and is not tied to a high D-dimer or cancer.
Item 1981158
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
Macular sparing in a posterior cerebral artery occipital infarct is explained by
Answer and why, all 4 options
Fiber crossing at the chiasm explains which half of each retina maps to each side, not why the macular cortex survives.
The retina is not injured in an occipital infarct; the visual loss is cortical.
A PCA branch would be lost along with the rest of the PCA territory, so it cannot explain why central vision survives.
The occipital pole, where central vision is mapped, often receives blood from MCA branches as well as the PCA, so central vision may survive a PCA infarct.
Item 1981300
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
The cortical (external) watershed zone between the anterior and middle cerebral artery territories lies along the
Answer and why, all 4 options
The calcarine cortex lies in the core of the PCA territory, not at an ACA-MCA border.
The inferior temporal lobe is supplied mainly by PCA branches and is not the ACA-MCA border zone.
The ACA and MCA territories meet along a strip near the top of the convexity beside the midline, which is where cortical watershed infarcts from low flow occur.
The pons is supplied by the basilar artery and lies outside the anterior circulation.
Item 1981302
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
The large band of white matter fibers that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the
Answer and why, all 4 options
The cerebral peduncle carries descending motor fibers through the midbrain; it does not connect the hemispheres.
The corona radiata is the fan of projection fibers above the internal capsule within one hemisphere.
The internal capsule carries fibers between the cortex and the brainstem and spinal cord on one side, not across to the other hemisphere.
The corpus callosum is the main commissure linking the two hemispheres, and lesions of it cause disconnection signs such as alien hand.
Item 1981303
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
After a right hemispheric stroke, a patient leans toward the weak left side, shoves the body further left with the strong right arm and leg, and resists being moved upright. This is
Answer and why, all 4 options
Truncal ataxia causes unsteady sitting and swaying without a consistent push toward one side.
Actively pushing toward the weak side with the strong limbs and resisting correction to midline is pusher syndrome, a disorder of perceived body verticality.
Orthostatic hypotension causes dizziness or fainting on standing, not pushing against correction.
Neglect often coexists after right hemisphere strokes, but it causes inattention to the left, not active pushing with the strong arm.
Item 1981517
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
On day 1, a patient with a thalamic hemorrhage that extends into the ventricles becomes increasingly drowsy, with sluggish pupils and downward eye deviation. The nurse suspects
Answer and why, all 4 options
Blood in the ventricles can block CSF outflow; rising pressure causes drowsiness, and pressure on the dorsal midbrain causes downward gaze deviation, so an EVD may be needed.
A thalamic hemorrhage is usually hypertensive, not aneurysmal; there is no aneurysm to rebleed.
Nonconvulsive seizures can lower consciousness after a hemorrhage, but they do not produce forced downward gaze with sluggish pupils; EEG would be needed, and the CT picture points to blocked CSF flow.
Hyponatremia can cause drowsiness, but it does not explain sluggish pupils and forced downward gaze on day 1.
Item 1981523
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
A 62-year-old has a left posterior cerebral artery (PCA) infarct involving the medial temporal lobe and hippocampus. Which deficit should the nurse anticipate when planning discharge teaching?
Answer and why, all 4 options
Facial pain loss on one side is part of lateral medullary syndrome from a vertebral or PICA occlusion.
Severe dysphagia is typical of brainstem and large MCA strokes, not of a PCA infarct limited to the temporal lobe.
The PCA supplies the medial temporal lobe and hippocampus, so damage there, especially on the left, impairs the formation of new memories; teaching needs written cues and family involvement.
Leg-predominant weakness comes from an ACA stroke affecting the medial motor strip.
Item 1981528
Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology of Stroke · 28 items
A patient has sudden slurred speech, mild right facial weakness and clumsiness of the right hand when writing, with no aphasia, neglect or visual loss. This is MOST consistent with
Answer and why, all 4 options
A right cerebellar stroke causes right-sided ataxia, but it would not weaken the right side of the face.
The speech problem is slurring, a motor articulation problem; language itself is intact, so it is not aphasia.
A cortical MCA branch infarct on the left would usually cause aphasia or other cortical signs, which are absent.
Dysarthria with facial weakness and a clumsy hand, without cortical signs, is the dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome, a classic lacunar pattern from a small deep infarct in the pons or internal capsule.
Item 1981548
Primary and Secondary Preventative Care · 19 items
The SCRN is designing a hypertension outreach program for a Spanish-speaking immigrant neighborhood. Which approach is MOST likely to succeed?
Answer and why, all 4 options
Translation removes one barrier, but a single mailing gives no personal contact or follow-up.
A passive website in English misses both the language and access barriers of this community.
Community health workers who share the language and culture build trust, reach people where they live and follow up, which improves BP control in underserved groups.
A language the audience may not speak, in a place they may not reach, excludes the people the program is for.
Item 419869
Primary and Secondary Preventative Care · 19 items
A nurse planning outreach learns that the 'stroke belt' has the highest stroke mortality in the United States. This region is located in the
Answer and why, all 4 options
The Pacific Northwest has stroke mortality near or below the national average.
The stroke belt covers southeastern states such as North Carolina, South Carolina and Georgia, where stroke mortality has long been higher than the national average.
New England has among the lowest stroke death rates in the country.
The upper Midwest is not part of the stroke belt, whose excess deaths are concentrated in the Southeast.
Item 420063
Primary and Secondary Preventative Care · 19 items
Before discharge, the nurse reviews anticoagulant choices for a patient with atrial fibrillation after a stroke whose creatinine clearance is 28 mL/min. Which oral anticoagulant depends MOST on renal elimination?
Answer and why, all 4 options
Warfarin is cleared by the liver; it needs INR monitoring but no renal dose adjustment.
About 80% of dabigatran is cleared by the kidneys, the most of any oral anticoagulant, so a creatinine clearance below 30 mL/min calls for a reduced dose or another agent.
Only about 27% of apixaban is cleared by the kidneys, which makes it a usual choice when kidney function is reduced.
About a third of rivaroxaban is cleared unchanged by the kidneys; it needs dose adjustment but depends on them less than dabigatran.
Item 1876524
Primary and Secondary Preventative Care · 19 items
An 84-year-old with atrial fibrillation and a recent ischemic stroke fell once last year and is now prescribed apixaban. The daughter worries about bleeding from falls. The nurse explains that
Answer and why, all 4 options
A survivor of a cardioembolic stroke has a high risk of another one, and modeling shows a person would have to fall very often for bleeding to outweigh that benefit, so one fall is not a reason to stop.
Stopping after one fall trades a small bleeding risk for a much higher risk of recurrent stroke; fall prevention is added instead.
Older patients have the highest stroke risk and gain the most from anticoagulation; age alone is not a contraindication.
Aspirin is far less effective than an anticoagulant for AF and still causes bleeding, so it is not a safer substitute.
Item 419674
Acute Care · 42 items
A patient admitted yesterday with a moderate ischemic stroke is now neurologically stable. Regarding rehabilitation, the SCRN should
Answer and why, all 4 options
Every stroke patient should be assessed by rehabilitation professionals early in the admission, so therapy and discharge planning can start while the patient is in the hospital.
Passive range of motion alone undertreats a stable patient who can begin active, assisted mobility.
Waiting for discharge loses days of early rehabilitation and leaves the discharge plan without the therapists' input.
OT and SLP are core inpatient stroke services; swallowing and self-care must be assessed before discharge.
Item 1876758
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
A spoke hospital starts alteplase for a patient with a suspected M1 occlusion who needs transfer for thrombectomy. To shorten door-in-door-out time, the nurse
Answer and why, all 4 options
Waiting the full infusion time before requesting transport adds an hour of avoidable delay to thrombectomy.
MRI at the sending site lengthens door-in-door-out time and does not change the decision to transfer.
Calling for transfer at the first suspicion of an LVO, rather than after treatment at the spoke is complete, removes the biggest delay in door-in-door-out time.
A repeat scan at the spoke site adds time; the receiving center reimages if needed.
Item 1981183
Hyperacute Care · 42 items
A patient who received tenecteplase at a spoke hospital is being transferred for thrombectomy. Compared with alteplase, the MAIN advantage for the transport team is that
Answer and why, all 4 options
Antithrombotics are held for 24 hours after any lytic, whatever the agent.
Tenecteplase is a single bolus, so there is no hour-long infusion to time, protect or stop en route; the BP and neuro monitoring after a lytic still apply.
Post-lytic neuro checks start every 15 minutes regardless of the agent; a single bolus does not relax monitoring.
The post-lytic limit of 180/105 mm Hg applies to tenecteplase just as to alteplase.
Item 1981261
Post-acute Care · 19 items
After one fall, a patient is afraid to walk and now restricts activity at home. Which intervention BEST improves the patient's balance confidence?
Answer and why, all 4 options
Replacing walking with a wheelchair removes practice, speeds deconditioning and deepens the fear.
Inactivity weakens the patient and reinforces avoidance; fear does not resolve without exposure.
Sedating drugs such as benzodiazepines raise fall risk and do not build confidence.
Fear of falling is reduced by safe, progressive exposure: supervised exercise that slowly increases balance demands builds both ability and confidence.
Item 420033
Primary and Secondary Preventative Care · 19 items
A patient taking clopidogrel after an ischemic stroke has a dental extraction scheduled. The nurse teaches the patient to
Answer and why, all 4 options
Stopping an antiplatelet after a stroke raises recurrence risk, and most dental extractions can be done while it continues, so any change is decided with the prescriber.
Ibuprofen does not give reliable antiplatelet protection and adds GI bleeding and BP effects.
Stopping on one's own for a minor procedure leaves the patient unprotected, and local measures usually control dental bleeding.
Doubling raises bleeding risk without making up for missed protection.
Item 420428
Acute Care · 42 items
A patient with a coiled aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage takes nimodipine 60 mg every 4 hours. After each dose the systolic BP falls from about 130 to 96 mm Hg. The nurse anticipates
Answer and why, all 4 options
Nimodipine does not open narrowed arteries on angiography, yet it improves neurologic outcome after SAH; stopping it gives up that benefit.
Dose-related hypotension is managed by giving the same daily amount as 30 mg every 2 hours, which flattens the BP dip and keeps the outcome benefit of the full 21-day course.
Stretching the interval lowers the total daily dose below the regimen shown to improve outcome, and each 60 mg dose still drops the BP.
Prophylactic induced hypertension is not recommended; vasopressors are reserved for new ischemic deficits.
Item 9710004
Primary and Secondary Preventative Care · 19 items
Four days after a nondisabling left hemispheric stroke, carotid duplex shows 80% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery. The nurse anticipates carotid endarterectomy
Answer and why, all 4 options
Short-term DAPT is for minor stroke without a surgical lesion; it does not replace or postpone revascularization of a symptomatic stenosis.
Symptomatic 70 to 99% stenosis is an indication for surgery now; waiting for a second stroke accepts preventable harm.
Recurrence risk is highest in the first days after a symptomatic carotid event, so for a nondisabling stroke with 70 to 99% stenosis endarterectomy is done early, ideally within 2 weeks.
Waiting weeks was once common for fear of bleeding into the infarct, but most preventable recurrences happen during that wait.
Item 9710006
Post-acute Care · 19 items
Three months after a right hemisphere stroke, a patient whose mild left neglect has mostly resolved wants to start driving again. The nurse advises
Answer and why, all 4 options
Neglect, slowed processing and visual field loss can persist without the patient noticing, so a structured clinical and on-road evaluation by a driving rehabilitation specialist decides when driving is safe.
Acuity and field screening miss the attention deficit of neglect; normal vision does not mean the patient will notice what happens on the left.
Self-assessment is unreliable after a right hemisphere stroke, where reduced awareness of deficits is common; confidence does not show attention to the left side.
A passenger cannot correct a missed hazard on the left in time, and short trips still expose the patient to intersections where neglect causes crashes.
Item 9710008
Acute Care · 42 items
A patient who has taken atorvastatin 40 mg daily for years is admitted with an acute ischemic stroke and passes the swallow screen. Regarding the statin, the nurse anticipates
Answer and why, all 4 options
The lipid result guides the dose later; it is not a reason to withdraw a drug the patient already takes.
Patients already on a statin keep taking it during the acute stroke; stopping it was linked to worse early outcomes, and it is part of the long-term plan anyway.
There is no hepatic reason to pause a statin the patient has tolerated for years, and an interruption removes its benefit at the worst time.
Fibrates do not lower stroke risk and do not replace a statin; the switch also stops the statin abruptly.
Item 9710009
Acute Care · 42 items
The morning after alteplase, the routine 24-hour CT shows a few petechial hyperdensities scattered within the infarct. The NIHSS is unchanged and BP is 150/84 mm Hg. The nurse anticipates
Answer and why, all 4 options
Scattered petechiae are not a hematoma that can be evacuated, and surgery would add risk to a stable patient.
Reversal is for symptomatic hemorrhage with neurologic worsening; giving it for asymptomatic petechiae adds thrombotic risk without benefit.
Petechial hemorrhagic change inside an infarct is common after reperfusion and, with a stable exam, needs no reversal; neuro checks continue so any decline is caught early.
BP after a lytic is kept below 180/105, and 150/84 already meets it; pushing it lower can drop perfusion to the penumbra.
Item 9710010
Primary and Secondary Preventative Care · 19 items
A 41-year-old had a minor stroke from a spontaneous dissection of the extracranial internal carotid artery. For secondary prevention over the next 3 months, the nurse anticipates
Answer and why, all 4 options
This intensity is used for some mechanical valves, not dissection; it adds bleeding risk, and treatment is time-limited.
Healing takes time, and the early weeks carry the highest risk of embolic stroke from clot on the torn wall.
Stenting is reserved for recurrent ischemia despite medical therapy; most dissections heal on their own with antithrombotic treatment.
Trials comparing antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy after cervical dissection found similarly low recurrence, so either kind of antithrombotic for 3 months is reasonable while the vessel wall heals.
Item 9710011
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Timing yourself against the real exam
On test day 170 questions share 3 h, about 63 seconds per question. Sixty items at that pace take about an hour; try one uninterrupted sitting before you read the explanations.
Scores on this set do not convert to the exam's scale. The board reports results on a scale where 200 is the pass point and does not publish the raw number behind it (how scaling works). What the set is good for is locating a weak section: if one chip falls well below the others, go to that section's page and its quiz.
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Our items, not the board's
Most of these questions come from the bank of our stroke nursing study app, and a few were written for this site; all were written or revised against current AHA/ASA guidance, including the January 2026 guideline on early management of acute ischemic stroke. The board does not release exam items; it publishes a handful of sample items written in its own style.